Paul’s Admonition To Women
Is Paul’s admonition to women in 1 Timothy 2 contextual, and dare I say even his own preference?
Recently someone posted a fascinating video on Youtube, which I posted. Lots of passion around the subject, and I get that. I personally think our approach to gender always need to be first through the lens of love and not just context.
But then Robert posted an interesting comment that got me reading. He said:
“This is a wrench? 1 Tim 5 is the definition of women deacons or “deaconesses”. But Titus 1, 1 Tim 2 defines elders/bishops as husbands of one wive. Also, there are apostles and there are Apostles: the word had a use before the NT and continued to afterwards. Does anyone really find the otherwise brilliant Tom persuasive here?”
Being the interested party I am to this subject, I looked up 1 Timothy 2. Turns out the command is actually in 1 Timothy 3. The two verses Robert is speaking of are:
1 Timothy 3:12 – A deacon must be the husband of but one wife and must manage his children and his household well.
Titus 1:6 – An elder must be blameless, the husband of but one wife, a man whose children believe and are not open to the charge of being wild and disobedient.
I’m curious as to one thing. Paul uses the phrase “husband of but one wife” here in both cases. He doesn’t use the word male or man. Even the clarifier of “man” that follows has to do with a role as father, not as gender. What this means is that it is “potentially” non-exclusive in the sense. Could it be that he’s addressing the concern of husbands as a role as opposed to excluding women from being elders? It just doesn’t read, at least to me, as exclusive.
Technically if you wanted to be anal about it, elders must actually be husbands, which would then rule out unmarried men. This just seems ridiculous to me.
But in reading 1 Timothy 2, something caught my attention that I had never seen before. It says:
1 Timothy 2:11-15 (NIV) - 11A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent. 13For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. 15But women will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.
I’m not claiming a deep knowledge of the full weight of what is being written here. I would leave that to better minds. But I do get to take the text at face value and ask questions. So what stood out to me is Pauls first four words in verse 12. He says, “I do not permit…”
It seems to me, given the face value of the text that Paul is speaking a specific preference here. It seems odd that he would offer an approach to truth as something he personally doesn’t permit, as opposed to “It is not permitted”…unless it is a preference. A simple search reveals this is the ONLY time Paul uses this phrase. In 1 Corinthians 7:10, as example, he is actually careful to clarfiy the command.
1 Corinthians 7:10 (NIV) – 10To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not separate from her husband.
Yet he doesn’t do that in 1 Timothy 2. And I would again heavily argue that any mandate Paul offers MUST filter through the command to love. It must be congruent with holding the dignity of another person. I just don’t get how excluding the voice of women does that. Maybe it’s just me.
What do you think?
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